Answering An Evangelical

This is taken from an Evangelical website, their words are in black and blue and mine in Red. The arguments they use can be answered easily.

Must one be baptized to be saved?

The doctrinal errors of Campbellism

 

While there are many doctrinal issues that divide the evangelical from the Campbellite, the greatest point of controversy is their view of baptism.

The Evangelical believes that salvation is by grace alone, through faith alone, in Christ alone. Human works such as baptism, church membership, etc... are not necessary for salvation. While obedience to God's Law has a role to play in assurance of salvation, it has no role to play in salvation. Baptism like circumcision is a outward rite which symbolizes an inner state. While both ceremonies symbolize regeneration, they do not accomplish it.

In opposition to evangelical doctrine, Campbellite theology teaches "baptismal regeneration." It is claimed that water baptism by immersion of adults only unto remission of sins does not merely symbolize regeneration but it actually accomplishes it. Faith is not enough. Obedience to God's Law must also take place or salvation is not possible. Unless you are baptized in the exact way they dictate (immersion, adults only), for the exact purpose they have in mind (unto remission of sins), and by the right person (a Campbellite preacher) not only is your baptism invalid but you are not yet saved no matter how sincerely you believe in Jesus Christ as your Savior! To add baptism to faith is nothing more than adding works to grace which is impossible according to Rom. 11:6. The attempt to evade this by claiming that baptism is part of faith is not linguistically or grammatically possible. If obedience to God's commands such as baptism is what "faith" is, then why stop with baptism? What about all the other commands of God such as "love your wife?" A works-salvation can never say when enough works have been done! 

First, his opening paragraph has an array of inaccuracies about our teaching. You can tell his work is deceptive and Satanic because he is deceptive from the beginning.

1. Campbell became associated with the disciples of christ more than the Churches of Christ. The Churches of Christ existed in England and Europe before Campbell was born. They were called Christians and not Campbellites. They did indeed practice Baptism for the remission of sins. Whether Campbell or Stone or any other was rebaptized is a matter of speculation and not historical fact.

2. They call us a cult and say we are unsaved, but get angry when we say they are unsaved. We say they are unsaved because they have not complied with God's word in baptism but they say we are lost for complying with God's word.

3. We do not limit baptism to adults, but will baptize anyone of the age of reason.

4.He says baptism correlates with circumcision, but Colossians says it correlates with faith and forgiveness. Imagine if they argued faith and forgiveness aren't necessary because circumcision isn't necessary. Baptism correlates with God's operation in Colossians 2:12, imagine them saying God's operation is not necessary in salvation.

5. We do not require baptism by a preacher. Often the person preaching or teaching doesn't perform the baptism.

 

The Reasons Why Baptism Is Not Essential For Salvation

1. If the Campbellite doctrine is true, then the Restorers were not saved men! Thomas Campbell, Alexander Campbell, Walter Scott and Barton Stone were never baptized "unto the remission of sins." While they repudiated their infant baptism where they were baptized by the Baptists, they never repudiated their Baptist baptism and rebaptized according to Campbellite baptism. 

Baptist baptistism was often "for the remission of sins", since at that time the term Baptist did not always imply the modern denomination, only that the people practiced immersion. 

He is confusing Baptist and Presbyterian. Campbell was first Presbyterian and baptized as an infant, he became Baptist, and as he admits some Baptists did immerse for the remission of sins like the Churches of Christ. So, why would Campbell be rebaptized for the remission of sins if his Baptist baptism was for the remission of sins.

2. Jesus never baptized anyone. If baptism is essential for salvation, then Jesus never saved anyone. 

Fairly silly, Jesus did not pray with all the people either so he didn't save them either. Jesus didn't wash the mud out of the blind man's eyes but he was healed nonetheless by Jesus.

Jesus saved in baptism because it was "through the word". It is a product of faith in Christ's word.

See Ephesians 5:23-26 "by the word"

3. Paul did not view baptism as part of the Gospel (I Cor. 1:14-17). 

Paul doesn't say baptism is disjoined from the Gospel either in these verses, he is saying he was sent to preach it, not execute it. Others could execute baptism after Paul preached it. He did preach it from the beginning in Corinth.

Act 18:8  And Crispus, the chief ruler of the synagogue, believed on the Lord with all his house; and many of the Corinthians hearing believed, and were baptized. 

Baptism is tied to what they heard and what Paul preached. It was in his content.

Also consider Acts 19 where those in Ephesus, his next main stop, were questioned about their baptism and were re-baptized in Christ's name.

Act 19:2  He said unto them, Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? And they said unto him, We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost. 

Act 19:3  And he said unto them, Unto what then were ye baptized? And they said, Unto John's baptism. 

Act 19:4  Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus. 

Act 19:5  When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. 

4. John's baptism did not save anyone even though it was "unto remission of sins" (Mk. 1:4 cf. Acts 19:1-5). 

Who says John's baptism didn't save, those being baptized justified God. For the remission is just future, at some point it was applied to those who obeyed. The were baptized saying to believe on him who was to come, so it was applied when they met Christ and believed.

Act 19:4  Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus. 

It wasn't faith alone, they did not believe on Christ yet because he hadn't appeared yet, but John's baptism would be applied as they looked forward to his appearing and applied at faith in Christ when he appeared.

The phrase can't be looking back since Christ hasn't appeared for them to believe on him yet. 

5. Since there is only one God, there is only one way of salvation (Rom 3:28-30). This means that whatever is necessary for salvation today was also necessary during O.T. times. 

He believes God can't change covenant or add more information to make a new covenant. 

6. The Gospel of justification by faith alone apart from obedience to God's commands is taught in both O.T. and the N.T. (Rom 1:1-2).

Abraham : before the Law (Rom. 4:1-5)  

David : after the Law (Rom. 4:6-8)  

Habakkuk: in the Prophets (Rom. 1:17) 

Justification by faith alone isn't taught in these passages, only justification before circumcision and apart from the law, James 2:21-24 reiterates Abraham was justified by works of faith. Please see the articles on Abraham and David.

He implies "faith alone", but the bible doesn't teach it. He argues by ignorance. The word "alone" isn't in any of the passages. Faith and obedience can go hand in hand.

Heb 11:8  By faith Abraham, when he was called to go out into a place which he should after receive for an inheritance, obeyed; and he went out, not knowing whither he went. 

The order of justification is very clear.

1. faith when God made the promise in Gen. 12

2. obeyed Gen 12 to Gen 14

3. Asked God about the seed after winning the land. Gen 15

3. Faith accounted in Genesis 15

1. Abraham was justified before circumcision, but after being called and leaving UR. He sojourned before having his faith accounted for righteousness. The condition was given in Genesis 12 and faith accounted in Genesuis 15.

Leaving his home was a condition of being blessed.

Gen 12:1  Now the LORD had said unto Abram, Get thee out of thy country, and from thy kindred, and from thy father's house, unto a land that I will shew thee: 

Gen 12:2  And I will make of thee a great nation, and I will bless thee, and make thy name great; and thou shalt be a blessing: 

Gen 12:3  And I will bless them that bless thee, and curse him that curseth thee: and in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed. 

The promise of Christ's blessing was conditional upon Abraham's separation from Ur. Paul said Genesis 12:3 was the Gospel being preached to Abraham. In Genesis 15:1 God makes it clear that it was after Abraham's sojourning. Look at God's explanation in Genesis 15.

Gen 15:7  And he said unto him, I am the LORD that brought thee out of Ur of the Chaldees, to give thee this land to inherit it. 

Leaving the land of Ur was in God's plan of blessing within the promise. Abraham's question about a seed goes back to the original promise. It is part of God's plan in our day also, leaving all to follow Christ.

Mar 10:29  And Jesus answered and said, Verily I say unto you, There is no man that hath left house, or brethren, or sisters, or father, or mother, or wife, or children, or lands, for my sake, and the gospel's, 

Mar 10:30  But he shall receive an hundredfold now in this time, houses, and brethren, and sisters, and mothers, and children, and lands, with persecutions; and in the world to come eternal life

Abraham's faith was accounted to him after obeying the promise. His question about a seed was in hind sight of the promise.

7. Baptism is the N.T. parallel of circumcision just as the Lord's Supper is the parallel of the Passover (Col. 2:11-12). Since circumcision was not essential for salvation, then neither is baptism.

See the articles on circumcision.

 

8. Abraham was saved BEFORE he was circumcised in order to emphasize that salvation was by faith alone apart from obedience to God's commands and that the Gentiles would be saved by faith alone apart from obedience to any command such as baptism (Rom. 4:9-11, 16, 23-5:2). 

Abraham was justified after offering Isaac by works, see the article covering Abraham and justification. Faith was formally imputed after offering Isaac.

9. Cornelius was saved and baptized by the Holy Spirit before he was baptized (Acts 10:44-48). This passage clearly refutes baptismal regeneration. 

It doesn't say they were saved before baptism in Acts 10, the Spirit was bearing witness they were called for salvation. See the article on Cornelius. Plus they were to be given things to do.

Act 10:6  He lodgeth with one Simon a tanner, whose house is by the sea side: he shall tell thee what thou oughtest to do. 

The word ought is the word binding or necessary.

Third person singular active present of G1210; also δεόν deon which is neuter active participle of the same; both used impersonally; it is (was, etc.) necessary (as binding): - behoved, be meet, must (needs), (be) need (-ful), ought, should.

 In Acts 11 they would be necessary for salvation.

Act 11:14  Who shall tell thee words, whereby thou and all thy house shall be saved. 

The commands they were given were necessary and binding and led to salvation.

Also, the Holy Spirit could fall upon the unsaved to bear witness to the preaching as they completed the commands.

The preaching was the Gentiles could be saved

The Holy Spirit fell on Gentiles to bear witness, not that they were saved, but they could be saved.

10. Baptismal regeneration:

a.) makes salvation depend on the availability of water  

b.) makes salvation depend on the availability of a Campbellite preacher  

c.) confuses the symbol with the reality  

d.) makes faith and obedience and the same thing  

e.) is based on a superstitious and magical view of baptism. 

11. The thief on the cross was saved without baptism. The Campbellite argument that he was saved under the O.T. way of salvation is not possible seeing that Christ had already died on the cross and finished the atonement before the thief died. The thief belongs on the N.T. side of the cross and not on the O.T. side. 

He is a little confused, the thief was forgiven before Christ's death, Jesus had power on earth to forgive, see Mark 2.

Yet, the thief did die after Jesus, so his death was after Christ's. Was baptism required immediately after Christ's death? No, not at all. The Gospel faith wasn't completed until Christ arose, ascended, and was coronated.

Rom 4:25  Who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification. 

The thief couldn't be saved under the New Testament faith because Jesus hadn't been raised yet. That is a death blow to evangelicals, the thief is their poster boy for their plan of salvation, but the justifying knowledge we are required to have, he didn't have yet.

That is why repentance and remission of sins would be preached in Jerusalem after Christ's ascension.

Luk 24:46  And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day: 

Luk 24:47  And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem. 

Repentance and remission would be preached after the resurrection, not at Christ's death. His death ratified the way that was taught, but it wasn't taught until after the resurrection. First in Jerusalem on Pentecost.

12. Campbellites claim that the word "unto" in Acts 2:38 (eis in the Greek) always means "in order to obtain" and is always "forward looking." In this way they make remission of sins follow the act of baptism in a cause and effect relationship. Baptism causes forgiveness of sins. The problem with this idea is that Greek scholars do not see this as the meaning of "eis." Liddell and Scott, Thayer, A.T. Robertson, Dana and Manty, Vine, etc... state that "eis" is often used in the sense of "in reference to something already previously existing or accomplished." In this sense, baptism is done AFTER and BECAUSE of remission of sins. Once our sins are forgiven, then you should be baptized. That the Greek scholars are correct is seen from the way "eis" is used in the N.T.:

1. No one ever said it always means :in order to obtain. Eis has several meanings. It does always look forward.

2. It just never means because of. The greek words oti and dia  and ek and eiido mean because of. 

301 times because is used in the KJV, 0 times from eis.

  

e. I Cor. 10:2: "baptized unto (eis) Moses." Moses existed before the "baptism" in the Red Sea. The people were not "baptized" in order to obtain Moses. Their "baptism" was in response to his leadership. 

Whether Moses existed before was not the issue, the issue was whether the relationship with Moses existed before. Crossing the red sea entered them into a new relationship, thus eis is used because they are moving into a relationship not previously had.

a. Matt. 3:11 "baptism unto (eis) repentance." You get baptized because you have repented. You do not get baptized so you can obtain repentance. The order is, "repent and be baptized."

Actually you do get baptized to accomplish repentance, it is an act of repentance towards God's will. Repentance isn't fulfilled without obedience to this command. The greek word and allows one word to be a subset of another.

Consider 

Act 19:4

Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance,

Clearly Matthew 3:11 is saying baptism is an act of repentance.

  

b. Matt 12:41: "they repented at (eis) the preaching of Jonah" Obviously, the preaching came first and then the people repented in response to that preaching.  

"At" is used in terms of direction, not necessarily time. Example - the batter hit the ball at or toward the shortstop. Repenting at the preaching of Jonah is direction and the traditional usage of eis. It doesn't mean because. They repented in the direction Jonah's preaching led them.

c. Matt. 28:19: "Baptizing them in (eis) the name of the Father and of Son and of the Holy Ghost"

The Triune God exists before one is baptized.  

He is confusing the greek, eis as a preposition is based upon those being baptized being baptized into the Godhead. Thus they were accomplishing the task on the people.

Were they already baptized into the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. This is still future so eis points forward.

d. Mk. 1:9: "baptized of John in (eis) Jordon." Jesus did not come into possession of the Jordon River as He was baptized. The Jordon existed long before baptism was invented.

He confuses the greek here also, the story is being told as if it is presently occuring, thus it modifies the present tense, not past tense. The word came or come is present tense.

Middle voice of a primary verb (used only in the present and imperfect tenses, the others being supplied by a kindred [middle voice] word,

                                                                                                            Conclusion

As long as the Campbellites teach that baptism is essential for salvation, they will be viewed as a cult by evangelical Christians. Salvation is by grace alone, through faith alone, apart from obedience to any of God's commands. Works are the evidence of salvation instead of the basis of it. 

 

[This article is taken from Robert Morey's writings. He is founder of the ministry Faith Defenders.]