Grace Only Baptism

With Catholic theology such as Luther used, the use of infant baptism meant baptism was grace only until old enough to be confirmed. Faith only did not apply until the age of reason.

1. Grace only until the age of reason.

2. Faith and grace only after the age of reason since baptism occured before faith.

3. Those baptized as adults would be different because baptism was after faith.

This sort of throws a wrench in the schema because all would seem to be under differing order.

Colossians 2:12 seems to say baptism works thru faith, so that infant baptism doesn't fit into the Colossian schema. Some have argued the reference is that baptism is  equal to old testament circumcision, but it says the circumcision is made without hands.

Col 2:11  In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ: 

Col 2:12  Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead. 

The circumcision here has to be an operation of God, not an operation of man, it is without hands. Baptism in Colossians 2 either follows this circumcision or proceeds it, but they aren't one in the same. Baptism isn't New Testament circumcision. Putting off the body of sins is. This may be the forgiveness spoken of after baptism or the faith we acquire before..

If the circumcision is of the heart and involves the exposure of faith, then faith proceeds baptism. If circumcision is the removal of sins, then baptism goes before new testament circumcision.

Wherein also (speaking of baptism) you were raised with him through the faith in the operation of God.

If we concede the circumcision in Colossians 2 is not baptism, because it was a circumcision without hands, we can prove infant baptism wasn't doctrinal. 

1. If the circumcision is the advent of faith then baptism of infants is impossible

2. If the circumcision is forgiveness, then infant baptism only works theoretically in the context of original sin for infants. Yet would still lack faith towards God's operation.

If one believes forgiveness is from baptism then you could say baptism is the circumcision; if you believe baptism is toward forgiveness, but God has to impute faith after baptism, the baptism is in the process but the actual circumcision is God removing the sin.

Since we are raised with Christ in baptism, "through the faith in the operation of God", it is no doubt that faith in God's work is necessary in baptism and any forgiveness that follows..

I realize there were several household baptisms in the New Testament, but household doesn't imply infants, nor does it imply baptism before faith..

Acts 10:1-3

Cornelius feared God with his whole house.

Cornelius house was old enough to fear.

Acts 16:31-33

believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you shall be saved, you and your house...

The condition of belief was extended to the house as well.

those who heard the word were baptized

Those in the jailor's house were old enough to hear the word.

In all but one instance the household was old enough to believe, Lydia being the only exception, and the scriptures say nothing one way or the other. There is no precedent for infant baptism.

Also, notice through the faith in Colossians 2:12 is the same phrase as through the faith in Ephesians 2:8.

Antinomian faith only groups, baptist and Methodist etc, contend "through faith or through the faith in Greek" excludes baptism; but the Colossians 2:12 example proves the phrase doesn't exclude baptism, it is actually used with baptism in mind.