John 13 Discrepancy

John 13:2 seems to be different in the KJV vs newer versions. The KJ reads it was after the supper while others read during the supper. The KJV may actually be correct if you take the supper as the Lord's Supper and not the Jewish Passover which seems to be the same night. Most scholars take the word supper to be the Passover, but that may be a bad assumption.

The Greek word for being ended can also be translated during something ongoing, and it is acceptable either way. 

Joh 13:2  AndG2532 supperG1173 being ended,G1096 theG3588 devilG1228 having nowG2235 putG906 intoG1519 theG3588 heartG2588 of JudasG2455 Iscariot,G2469 Simon'sG4613 son, toG2443 betrayG3860 him;G846 

compare to 

Mat 20:8  SoG1161 when evenG3798 was come,G1096 theG3588 lordG2962 of theG3588 vineyardG290 saith unto hisG848 steward,G2012 CallG2564 theG3588 labourers,G2040 andG2532 giveG591 themG846 their hire,G3408 beginningG756 fromG575 theG3588 lastG2078 untoG2193 theG3588 first.G4413 

In this verse evening was come but ongoing, so translation the dinner had come and was ongoing isn't a bad idea. Yet the KJV may still be right. The Lord's Supper was over and that could be the point. Since v1 says before the Passover Jesus loved them till the end it doesn't infer this dinner was night before the Passover.

In Luke's account the argument over who was going to be greatest came after the Lord's Supper and after Jesus spoke of them being appointed Judges. So, the word supper may actually be the Lord's Supper which seems to be before the Passover was finished. In John Jesus got up from the table, washed feet, sat back at the table inferring Passover started or continued.

John may be correct,

1. It was before the formal Passover meal v1.

2. As they did eat may refer to the beginning of the Lord's Supper. See Matt 26

2. It was after the Lord's Supper the foot washing occurred. So vs 2 could be after the Supper.

Matthew and Mark say it was while they did eat, so it is possible they were eating out of the dish they dipped in, but the lamb portion they had not started. Since it says as they did eat the translations that say during the meal vs after may be better. Either is plausible.

That is when he washed their feet. It makes sense if they needed to be clean before eating the passover. Jesus corrected their sin of arguing and cleansed them physically. This seems to follow every other Gospel. There are Old Testament passages stating they needed to be clean before the Passover was eaten.

The Lord's Supper

The arguing

The foot washing

The Passover

In this order the KJV would actually be correct. I am still studying it but it seems right. There is no doctrinal problem and no contradictions that the enemies of Christ can actually point out.