Mary Born Sinless

Catholics now teach Mary was born sinless based upon the word grace as applied in Luke 1:28 and Ephesians 1:6.1.

The argument is that the same word for grace is used, therefore the grace given to the Ephesians was also defined for Mary. She was born with the same grace given to the Ephesians. Thus she was sinless.

1. The angel appeared to Mary in adulthood, there is nothing taking the grace to her conception.

2. The word for grace does not mean any specific grace, it had to be defined in the paragraph.

3. The grace to Mary was different in specifics than the grace specified to the Ephesians.

Just because the same word for grace is used does not mean the details of grace are the same.

The grace to the Ephesians is defined by the description following.

Eph 1:3  Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with spiritual blessings in heavenly places, in Christ:

Eph 1:4  As he chose us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and unspotted in his sight in charity.

Eph 1:5  Who hath predestinated us unto the adoption of children through Jesus Christ unto himself: according to the purpose of his will:

Eph 1:6  Unto the praise of the glory of his grace, in which he hath graced us, in his beloved son.

Eph 1:7  In whom we have redemption through his blood, the remission of sins, according to the riches of his, grace,

Eph 1:8  Which hath superabounded in us, in all wisdom and prudence,

Eph 1:9  That he might make known unto us the mystery of his will, according to his good pleasure, which he hath purposed in him,

Eph 1:10  In the dispensation of the fulness of times, to re-establish all things in Christ, that are in heaven and on earth, in him.

The grace to Mary does not have to bear the same description. In this case Mary was given the Grace of being the saviors mother. It mentions nothing

If the word implied the same grace the Ephesians would have to be the saviors mother also. They would have to be immaculately conceived as well. This destroys their argument without doubt.

Luk 1:27  To a virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David: and the virgin's name was Mary.

Luk 1:28  And the angel being come in, said unto her: Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.

Luk 1:29  Who having heard, was troubled at his saying and thought with herself what manner of salutation this should be.

Luk 1:30  And the angel said to her: Fear not, Mary, for thou hast found grace with God.

Luk 1:31  Behold thou shalt conceive in thy womb and shalt bring forth a son: and thou shalt call his name Jesus.

Luk 1:32  He shall be great and shall be called the Son of the Most High. And the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of David his father: and he shall reign in the house of Jacob for ever.

Luk 1:33  And of his kingdom there shall be no end.

Luk 1:34  And Mary said to the angel: How shall this be done, because I know not man?

Luk 1:35  And the angel answering, said to her: The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee and the power of the Most High shall overshadow thee. And therefore also the Holy which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.

Luk 1:36  And behold thy cousin Elizabeth, she also hath conceived a son in her old age: and this is the sixth month with her that is called barren.

Luk 1:37  Because no word shall be impossible with God.

Luk 1:38  And Mary said: Behold the handmaid of the Lord: be it done to me according to thy word. And the angel departed from her.

They say the word implies the same grace, but you say Mary received the Ephesians grace but the ephesians did not receive Mary's grace. Your argument would require all Ephesians to become pregnant by the Holy Ghost.

They are simply deceiving the simple, and deceiving themselves.